Accordingly, if a comparison between bound books and invoices, inventories, bank records, etc., shows $$ coming in and inventory going out after the effective date of NICS, witout the appropriate notations somewhere, then the prosecuting authority may well be able to prove his case.
As you pointed out earlier, the government has to prove all elements of the crime. How do they prove the income wasn't from paraphernalia and accessories like jags, cleaning fluids, cutesy signs and labor/services like lane rentals at the attached shooting range? That's assuming the income is reported at all to create this discrepancy.
In some cases, sure. There will be firearms handed down through inheritance that may or may not be on the books even now. And this hypothetical UBC law may not require it even then- Using the last one as an example it doesn't appear it would have as there was an exemption for estate transfers.So? Sure there will be a lag time. IMHO, that lag time will be = forever.
That is incorrect. They will most certainly be able to prosecute anyone for failing to get a UBC for any firearm already with a post UBC paper trail. Any firearm manufactured or initially sold after the date is automatically covered -they'll find a 4473 at the initial point of sale after the date. Any firearm transferred after the date could be covered- If they can trace it through bound books to any point after the enactment date- any transfer without a 4473 afterwards is then illegal (or still trackable through the limited familial relation exemptions again using the recently proposed bill as a roadmap of what exemptions would be in this hypothetical world).Decades of making law-abiding citizens drive to their local FFL, pay a fee, and have the BC done, during which the feds still won't be able to prosecute anyone for failing to do so without registration,
As I understand it, the tracing program works now in this way- Law Enforcement starts with a firearm. They go to the manufacturer with the serial number, to the distributor, to the FFL, for the 4473. They then (assuming there was a 4473) go to that purchaser and ask where it is. This person may, or may not have a bill of sale leading to another name that may or may not be real or otherwise and so on down the line until the chain is broken by someone who doesn't have a bill of sale or claims loss/theft. Anyone who is on this 4473 form after the enactment date has to either point to another FFL and another 4473 form, or claim loss/theft, which right or wrong will lead to
Once the gov't gets to digging around on one offense, it may lead to proof of others.
Wait, why is this? I'm sure it takes a veritable ton of legal machinations to allow a felon to own, but not possess a firearm at least long enough to legally dispose of the firearm. What I'm not following is the train of logical thought that such a felon would not be required to use an FFL to process this transfer of title like anyone else. To the best of my knowledge, a felon isn't required to register assault weapon in some locations because of fifth amendment issues, but I've never seen that taken to mean they no longer have to undergo background checks to legally purchase a firearm (which I know, except for exceedingly rare situations as to be virtually non-existent they can't do). What I'm saying, and not very well I think is: Why does their immunity from this assault weapon registry imply some immunity from getting a background check, on someone else no less, to legally transfer title on a firearm they currently hold title to (or at least most of it given the bundle of sticks you explained earlier)?and still won't be able to prosecute felons for failing to do so under any circumstances.
They'll prove it in any case they can. Firearms made or with a 4473 paper trail existing after enactment date. The same way they proved post-ban Large Capacity Ammunition Feeding Devices. When they can't, I'm comfortable with that too. Better ten guilty go free than one innocent man suffer.tell me how a prosecutor will prove that a FTF transaction in the absence of registration
I've already answered this in a way, but again, why aren't they forced to drive to an FFL with their agent who is able to possess their lawfully acquired property while they LEGALLY sell the title rights to someone else?Is it really fair to force private citizens to go through a background check in order to transfer their private, lawfully-acquired property, when felons cannot be forced to do so
In order to keep this apples and apples, I'm assuming you're talking about a legal transaction in both cases, not a black market sale that would be illegal in at least one case.
Edit to add:
Part of what I suggested included removing the fee. I personally believe that since the background check is mandated by the government, and uses government data/resources involving a government employee and/or contractor, that the FFL, while conducting the background check is acting as the government for that service, and as such shouldn't be allowed to charge for it. As they're also a private entity, they shouldn't be required to do it for free either, and should get a fixed compensation for these activities.pay a fee
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