Before I would consider taking your request seriously I would need to know your professional qualifications for your opinions in this regard.
But I agree that in general, libel and slander are generally "post act" matters.
My credentials are undergrad and grad print reporting degrees from 30 years ago which involved over a half dozen grad level courses dealing with US press law. As well as some direct observations in libel case that was tried in both the US and the UK from that time that were central to my peer reviewed grad thesis. I also worked for a decade in Europe for two major US news gathering outfits in Europe and had to be aware of the very different press laws. That included the gamut from criminal libel (including libeling a state laws that were still present in several European countries). I am not an attorney but someone with some academic and professional background and fairly good academic understanding of serious differences in press freedom in various western democratic countries that extended into my early professional career.
I worked in EC countries with criminal libel, prior restraint, slander against the state laws, some vestigial and some enforced. Since our work was cross boundary with publication both in the US and in those countries we had to be aware of the both laws and very different conceptual framework on which they were based.
Personally I don't consider anyone who is an attorney but not a press law attorney any expert either. I don't want to get confrontational, but several of the cases here mentioned are being presented seriously out of context.
And respectfully, "generally" is not correct on libel and slander harms in the US. It is
always. Harm is a core element without which there is no case. Harm must always be proven, or already part of a limited set of presumed harms (alleging criminal conduct for example does not require complainant proving harm, since the harm can be assumed by precedent.)
And I am unproved by examples of mutual consent secrecy or NDAs? Can we see those as analogous when they when there is a willing non compelled exchange of benefit?
The only examples given in valid retort to my point, are the muddy parade permit examples. I agree those are muddy. The defendants in those cases are arguing from a public safety issue arising from safe capacity of a space and traffic disruption -- although in quite a few of those cases I will agree that it seems the speech itself is what is the unsaid initiating factor in denial.
Because one has chosen to engage in an activity subject to government regulation? Nonsense.
No because there is a mutual non-compelled agreements.
I am sorry if my comments seemed confrontational
But did I ask about the professional press law credentials of the person claiming that libel and slander are analogs to fourth amendment limits being discussed? That is so out in left field that if made by a person claiming expertise, one would say the credentials, even if present, are void. It certainly a problem with understanding of US of press and speech law.
Comparing libel and slander to regulations on purchase, possession, storage, etc of firearms is utterly and completely a false analogy.
A correct analogy would be comparing libel and slander, arising from use of free speech, to shooting and harming someone.
We were not discussing potential fourth amendment protection arising from a shooting.
I think you have to look at how the ACLU deals with this. They do
not apply the analogies attempted by the OP because they do not stand up.
They know they must, and they do, attack the fourth by directly defining as non individual and solely collective.