http://www.wwl.com/pages/16209701.php
Okay, I was wondering, in this scenario, the victim managed to disarm the perp whom immediately fled the scene.
The question is, would lethal force have been justifiable if the victim had, after gaining possession of the criminals firearm, fired upon him as he fled.
As I understand it, you have to have reasonable cause to believe your life is in danger or are in danger of grievous bodily harm. Since the perp was fleeing, if he was shot, and killed, could the victim be charged with man slaughter?
There is a bit of a gray area here I think, unless I'm misunderstanding something.
Okay, I was wondering, in this scenario, the victim managed to disarm the perp whom immediately fled the scene.
The question is, would lethal force have been justifiable if the victim had, after gaining possession of the criminals firearm, fired upon him as he fled.
As I understand it, you have to have reasonable cause to believe your life is in danger or are in danger of grievous bodily harm. Since the perp was fleeing, if he was shot, and killed, could the victim be charged with man slaughter?
There is a bit of a gray area here I think, unless I'm misunderstanding something.