Theohazard,
I hate hypotheticals, but maybe that will help you see through the forest.
Using Frank Ettins post:
Originally Posted by Frank Ettin
For the purpose of the Gun Control Act of 1968, "State of residence" is defined as (27 CFR 478.11, emphasis added):
Quote:
State of residence. The State in which an individual resides. An individual resides in a State if he or she is present in a State with the intention of making a home in that State. If an individual is on active duty as a member of the Armed Forces, the individual's State of residence is the State in which his or her permanent duty station is located, as stated in 18 U.S.C. 921(b)....
Frank only included a definition of "State of Residence".
What might be the intent of this law?
The Gun Control Act of 1968 (GCA or GCA68) is a U.S. federal law that regulates the firearms industry and firearms owners. It primarily focuses on regulating interstate commerce in firearms by generally prohibiting interstate firearms transfers except among licensed manufacturers, dealers and importers.
Hypothetical:
OP was born and raised in Florida, and was a Florida resident when he joined the military. They send him to a base in Texas (or Japan).
He intends to return to his home state after his hitch.
He is now home on leave in Florida.
According to Frank, TWO things are required to be a resident of either state:
1.
if he or she is present in a State
2.
with the intention of making a home in that State
Which state is he a resident of?? You seem to say he is not a resident of either.
Now, also consider the Servicemembers Relief Act:
50 U.S. Code § 4001 - Residence for tax purposes
Current through Pub. L. 114-38. (See Public Laws for the current Congress.)
US Code
Notes
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(a) Residence or domicile
(1) In general
A servicemember shall neither lose nor acquire a residence or domicile for purposes of taxation with respect to the person, personal property, or income of the servicemember by reason of being absent or present in any tax jurisdiction of the United States solely in compliance with military orders.
According to you, this entire law was written for the purpose of defining the tax code. Let's also consider the stated purpose:
The purposes of this chapter are—
(1) to provide for, strengthen, and expedite the national defense through protection extended by this chapter to servicemembers of the United States to enable such persons to devote their entire energy to the defense needs of the Nation; and
(2) to provide for the temporary suspension of judicial and administrative proceedings and transactions that may adversely affect the civil rights of servicemembers during their military service.
Considering that bearing arms is a "civil right", that appears to be much broader than where he pays taxes, does it not?
Now, try to take the entire situation in context, considering the text and intent of both laws.
Try very hard to not be myopic, and hold the entire context, and not quibble over a single word or phrase.
Once again:
Can the OP legally purchase a handgun in his "home state" of Florida?
In Texas (Japan)?
Anywhere???
Should he be denied the civil right to purchase a handgun in Florida? If so, where does he have a right to buy one?
I have continued to pursue this because I feel strongly that I am right.
Before calling me a crank or idiot, any detractor should also be prepared to answer all my questions.