However, the damage the FBI created is the very damage you would need for the gun to fail as Baldwin is claiming . Now there is no way for the defense or an independent third party to tell if there was previous damage .
While true, my question is "so??"
legal eagles, please correct me if I'm wrong, but does a manslaughter conviction require proof of intent?? Isn't manslaughter the charge for when you don't intend to harm or kill, but someone does get killed, anyway???
Isn't that what happened on the RUST set that day? A person, who had no intent to kill, shot and killed another person.
Why it happened, and how it happened are things to be considered, but isn't the fact that it did happen, and that the person holding, aiming, and cocking the gun is the reason it happened the way it did enough for a conviction??
My point is that even if the gun HAD been broken at the time of the fatal shooting, it was Baldwin that created the conditions that led to death and injury.
Also, consider that while the FBI has demonstrated it is not the paragon of infallibility it was once considered to be, are we expected to believe the FBI was intentionally lying about the gun's condition when they received it, and began testing??
If we assume the defense's claim that the gun was broken/defective as the reason Baldwin fired the fatal shot is true, then we must assume that the FBI is deliberately lying about the condition of the gun when they received it.
Either that, or we can assume that fairies flew into the NM evidence room (probably at night) and repaired the gun before it was sent to the FBI for testing.
Or we can assume that the FBI tester was secretly a devoted Baldwin fan, and deliberately damaged the gun so the fact that it was working properly could not be used against him in court???
We can assume anything, what matters is what the court finds admissible as evidence and what the jury decides based on that.