t, what it comes down to is that you'd be perfectly fine with someone kicking in your door, throwing a personal declaration of war against you on your coffee table, and taking a bunch of your stuff
No, Mike, I never said that, but that is what has happened, and is still happening, many times, by every country, including ours, and our government got us involved in it. On my street, I know of several relics from WWII, that has the legal US documentation with it. Those same items, by what I understand, can be taken at will, by our government, and given back, even though they were made the property of someone during WWII, by our own government. Some of these items were handed down to others, and some were sold, legally, to others. So, who should the fault lie with, the people who now own them, or our own government, for saying they could have them to start with? Who should owe who, since money has changed hands? Our own government can't have it both ways, giving something to someone, legally, and then taking it back without paying its value for it, especially after it has changed hands, and or was purchased. Lets not forget how our own government declared war on drugs, kicking in peoples doors, confiscating cars, homes, etc, and putting them up on auction, and they're doing it as I write this. Some argue this is right, and some don't.
Also, this can open up plenty of doors on the liability of our government, over the things they took. Our government says legally, but the other country says illegally. Look at all we took out of Germany; all the new designs and finished jet engines, and the nuclear projects and rocket programs they had started. Wouldn't our own government be considered a thief, or is that spoils of war? What about Project Paperclip?
This is the thing, our own government got us involved in it, and now, they're going to leave the citizens left holding the bag, for what they have allowed to be done, and that's not right.
It was pointed out that there's no proof that the gun came over legally, but there's no proof that it was illegal either, and the owner says it was legal. It's up to the US Government or Poland to prove otherwise, but I will not say the owner is lying about it. However, if it was legal, as claimed, then who owes who? How can it be the fault of the owner? How does he regain his money if it was our own governments fault?