Second Circuit Upholds Most of NY SAFE Act and CT Ban

My fear is that the SCOTUS, provided they agree to hear this case, will find a weasel way to uphold it, like they did with Obamacare (I am not agreeing or disagreeing with Obamacare specifically here, just I mean the upholding of it was rather fudged by Justice Roberts IMO). I can't imagine them actually overturning an assault weapons ban considering the number of such bans in place around the country right now.
 
http://www.ccdl.us/

CCDL said:
"We knew all along that we would end up appealing to the Supreme Court to overturn this clear injustice of our 2nd Amendment rights. We have 90 days from this ruling, and our attorneys will file a petition for certiorari within that time frame".

I need to make time to read the entire decision. An attorney of my acquaintance mentioned today that the circuit court actually found that the so-called "assault weapons" banned by both states are, in fact, in common use. That should have invalidated the bans under strict scrutiny, but the circuit court applied intermediate scrutiny to uphold [most of] the bans. That should be a simple, procedural matter to overturn.

"Should be" being the key term ...
 
They didn't find the banned firearms and magazines were in common use. They just assumed it for the purposes of this opinion (probably because it was an MSJ). They can change their minds later still.

Also, the Second Circuit uses the "core rights" analysis which means that strict scrutiny isn't applied unless the law infringes on the core right described in Heller (different courts taking different views as to the extent of the core right according to their biases). So just finding the firearm is in common use only gets some form of intermediate scrutiny (and a very mild flavor of that in the 2nd Cir. it seems).
 
Being a total amateur at the law, is not using strict scrutiny a weasel way to find arguments to uphold gun control laws? Shouldn't strict scrutiny be applied in all gun rights cases? Is strict scrutiny used most of the time in cases regarding other rights? I mean I can't imagine the courts at any level upholding restrictions on free speech, privacy, religion, etc...that they uphold on guns.
 
Being libertarian-oriented, I would probably favor an application of strict scrutiny far beyond what the courts currently use. However, intermediate scrutiny is used in many areas of law besides just gun issues. For example, many laws dealing with gender discrimination and sexual orientation receive intermediate scrutiny.

Likewise, content-neutral laws (the law applies equally to all speech regardless of the content of the speech) affecting free-speech receive intermediate scrutiny (which has led to things like "free-speech zones").

The problem with "intermediate scrutiny" (also called "heightened scrutiny" by the Second Circuit) is that it isn't well defined and as a result courts can (and do) apply a standard that is really little more than rational basis test to cases that should be holding the government to a higher standard.

In this particular case, that is exactly what happened. The only parts of the law the Second Circuit didn't strike down were those that the government literally made no effort at all to defend. This was a complex law affecting two different states and composed of hundreds of smaller provisions. It removed rights that had existed in these states since the founding of this country and directly touched on the Bill of Rights and the Second Circuit's version of heightened scrutiny upheld every single restriction the government submitted evidence on.

And then they went further and included in their decision things like "We'll assume these firearms are protected by the Second Amendment even though for these reasons that might not be the case..." which was basically a "How to"guide for gun control groups to argue the issue of common use against semi-autos. And even the two parts they overturned, they practically invited the government to submit evidence on that and try again.

I found it to be a grossly partisan decision.
 
Bartholomew Roberts said:
I found it to be a grossly partisan decision.
And that pretty well sums it up, I think.

Question: This originally started out as two separate cases at the district court level, one for NY and one for CT. I may be mistaken, but I don't think the two cases were actually consolidated at the circuit court level, I think they were just heard/argued at the same time.

Assuming that both the NY and CT plaintiffs go forward with appeals, will there be two separate appeals, or will the NY and CT cases forever be bound together from here forward? After all, despite there being only one decision, the case is still about two different state laws, and two different groups of plaintiffs.
 
OK, let me see if I got this right, they upheld the law saying you can't have more than a 10rnd magazine, but struck down the law saying you can't put more than 8 in your 10rnd magazine??

Is that right?


in-barking-credible.....
 
Bartholomew Roberts said:
In this particular case, that is exactly what happened. The only parts of the law the Second Circuit didn't strike down were those that the government literally made no effort at all to defend. This was a complex law affecting two different states and composed of hundreds of smaller provisions. It removed rights that had existed in these states since the founding of this country and directly touched on the Bill of Rights and the Second Circuit's version of heightened scrutiny upheld every single restriction the government submitted evidence on.
Just to keep everyone on the same page, and relating to my post #27, this decision was not about "a law" that affects two states. It was about two separate acts of legislature, in two different states, each of which revised, repealed, and/or create numerous laws within each of the respective state's body of statutes. IIRC, the Connecticut act alone ran to 169 pages, and affected numerous individual section of Connecticut statutes. The NY "SAFE Act" did pretty much the same thing in New York.
 
Now that the court has ruled, let's go out on a limb and postulate possible results. Enforcement in the states by the legal system? Considering the non-compliance rate in both states it is a certain thing that there would be bloodshed. Possible executive order placing the same restrictions on guns nationwide? Certainly would seem like political suicide, but would not surprise me in the least, especially concerning the rhetoric spewing forth from the nation's capital these days. Let's look at what this portends for gun owners nationwide. Does it have any affect whatsoever? Will it have any affect on public opinion? These are questions that need to be considered.
 
One thing I've been reading is that the court here made a major blunder in making the statement that, "These weapons are used disproportionately in crimes..." the thing is, the exact opposite is the case. People are killed very rarely and crimes period are committed very rarely with weapons like AR-15s or weapons labeled as "assault weapons" period.
 
Now that the court has ruled, let's go out on a limb and postulate possible results. Enforcement in the states by the legal system? Considering the non-compliance rate in both states it is a certain thing that there would be bloodshed. Possible executive order placing the same restrictions on guns nationwide? Certainly would seem like political suicide, but would not surprise me in the least, especially concerning the rhetoric spewing forth from the nation's capital these days. Let's look at what this portends for gun owners nationwide. Does it have any affect whatsoever? Will it have any affect on public opinion? These are questions that need to be considered.

I don't think that it is possible to ban "assault weapons" by Executive Order. I believe that if it was, it already would have been done.
 
Logicman, I would hope that is the case, but we have seen EO's used to ban gun imports, ammo, etc. Let's just say that an EO is ordered banning all evil black rifles and handguns. What recourse do we the public have? Legislation could be enacted to reverse it and passed, but vetoed. It would take time for such a legal battle to work itself through the courts and it would still be on the books the entire time. Even if it did work through the courts, it could be dicey. I realize that this scenario is a stretch, but not as long a one as I would like for it to be.
 
Executive orders only apply to the members and subordinates of the executive branch. While the president could order the ATF and it's director to change a policy or regulation, he cannot write law.

Granted, the Congress seems to have no spine to tell him that...
 
I don't think that it is possible to ban "assault weapons" by Executive Order. I believe that if it was, it already would have been done.

If it were possible, the Clintons would have done it. It's not.
 
Can anyone explain how the decision can quote Heller: "Instead, the Second Amendment protects only those weapons ‘in common use’ by citizens 'for lawful purposes like self ‐ defense'.” then reason, correctly:

"In the absence of clearer guidance from the Supreme Court or stronger evidence in the record, we follow the approach taken by the District Courts and by the D.C. Circuit in Heller II and assume for the sake of argument that these “commonly used” weapons and magazines are also “typically possessed by law ‐ abiding citizens for lawful purposes.” In short, we proceed on the assumption that these laws ban weapons protected by the Second Amendment. ",

yet still somehow uphold the very same laws? :confused:

Anyone who's a regular reader to this subforum should be familiar with the levels of scrutiny: strict scrutiny, intermediate scrutiny and rational scrutiny.

I would suggest that the Second Circuit has invented a new level: irrational scrutiny.
 
While I'm certainly no legal scholar, I wonder why US vs Miller was not cited. Obviously, a modern militia would require rifles that accept normal capacity magazines, same as the military.
 
imp said:
....I wonder why US vs Miller was not cited. Obviously, a modern militia would require rifles that accept normal capacity magazines, same as the military.
I suggest that you re-read Miller. There's nothing in the opinion that could reasonably be cited to support that proposition.

Furthermore, Miller is a largely discredited and superseded opinion. Basically it's a mess. Heller has pretty much eroded Miller, and it would be best for the opinion in Miller to fade away into the obscurity it deserves.

At the core of Miller was the notion that a firearm needed to be suitable for use by a militia to be within the protection of the Second Amendment. Heller severed that connection. At the core of Heller is the recognition that there is a personal right to keep and bear arms for lawful purposes without regard to service in a militia.
 
...Obviously, a modern militia would require rifles that accept normal capacity magazines, same as the military.
I suggest that you re-read Miller. There's nothing in the opinion that could reasonably be cited to support that proposition.

The part of the opinion that could support that proposition is the part you note below.

At the core of Miller was the notion that a firearm needed to be suitable for use by a militia to be within the protection of the Second Amendment.

A rifle identical to one used in federal service or state organised militias would presumably be suitable for militia service, and therefore possession of such an item would be within the protection of the 2d Am. as employed in Miller.


Imp, we all know the name US v. Miller not because it was insightful or well written, but because until Heller it was the only Sup. Ct. case on the issue to look toward. Combine that with the circumstances surrounding the case and you had a half century of people combing over the text of Miller to tease out something coherent or useful as you have done above, or alternatively dismissing it as useless.

As a work of constitutional scholarship the decision in Heller does, as Frank notes, "erode" Miller to a status of tangential historical curiosity.

EDIT - I would also note another facet of the curiosity. If I recall correctly, the item at issue was a sawed-off shotgun which the court found not suitable for militia use.

As a factual matter, in the actions of the last decade plus just such an item has been employed by our services as a piece of entry equipment.
 
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I do wonder, why it has to be one, OR the other? WHY NOT BOTH????

If your take on Miller is that "militia suitable" arms ARE protected, and Heller states that we have the right to arms, independent of the militia,

WHY CAN"T WE HAVE BOTH????
 
44_AMP said:
I do wonder, why it has to be one, OR the other? WHY NOT BOTH????

If your take on Miller is that "militia suitable" arms ARE protected, and Heller states that we have the right to arms, independent of the militia,

WHY CAN"T WE HAVE BOTH????
Exactly! Even Justice Stevens, who dissented, is on record as saying that Heller did not overturn Miller.
 
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