Tom Servo said:
Here's a scenario: I mention that I'm going by a gun shop today on my lunch break. Blanca says, "hey, they've got that Bustamatic 2000 in stock. Here's the money. Can you pick it up for me?" If I do so, I'm breaking the law. It doesn't matter that it's perfectly legal for him to own it.
However, let's say I just happen to be in the shop, and I see the BM2000. I think, "hey, Blanca wants one of those. I'll buy it for him." Since I'm buying it as a gift, I'm not breaking the law. Even if he reimburses me for it. Even if I sell it to him at a higher price than I paid.
Yep, that's it in a nutshell.
For example, I just got a card in the mail about a gun show coming up in two weeks. It's about 50 miles away, and I may or may not be able to get there. But I'm sure if I ask around at the range I can turn up somebody who will be attending. So I could hand one of these people a wad of cash and they can legally pick up ammo, holsters, scopes, parts, accessories, and gun-related "stuff" up the wazoo for me ... but if they buy a mil-surp CZ-82 or even a non-functional Colt 1860 Army ... now it's a straw purchase? How is that logical, and what purpose does it serve? Especially if my new-found friend spends all my money on the ammo I asked him to buy, then he spots the 1860 Army and buys it anyway since he knows I've been looking for one at the right price.
So now HE bought the gun, using his own money. I think we agree that it's 100 percent, squeaky clean legal if he gives it to me because I'm such a great guy, yes?
Suppose, though, that he hands it to me (through an FFL transfer, of course) and I pay him for it. Is it a straw sale then? After all, he used HIS money (my money was already spent on ammo). He WAS the actual purchaser -- even though his intention was to transfer it to me as soon as possible.
Then we ratchet things up another notch: He spent all my money on ammo, but we live in an era of cell phones. He spies the 1860 Colt so he calls me from the show: "Hey, I just spotted a cheap 1860 Colt, just like you've been talking about. The price is right. Shall I grab it for you?" What then if I say, "Yeah, grab it"? He's STILL using his money, but now he already knows he will be completely reimbursed.
It seems to me that this entire case hinges not on the transfer but on the answer he gave to one question on the 4473, and I just don't see that he lied on the form.
ESPECIALLY not when he had asked not one but THREE FFLs and they ALL told him what he wanted to do was legal. Words are supposed to have meaning, and "lie" does not means the same thing as "make a factual mistake." Heck, I know for a fact that I once made an incorrect statement under oath in a deposition. I didn't lie -- I was wrong in my recollection of an event that had taken place two years previous, and I wasn't aware that my statement was incorrect until six months after the deposition. Did I perjure myself? No, not in my eyes, and not in the eyes of the law. I told the truth as I understood it to be at the moment. Why should it be any different when you're checking a box on a piece of paper?