No CHL for Property Owned Out of State

hermannr, thanks for your tips. I'll call him.

I'll also check out the Peruta v. County of San Diego and Peterson v. Garcia case references.

To everyone... I appreciate your kind help.
 
There is another possible interesting point here and that is one of lack of equal protection under the law.

Under what legal precedent do the citizens of adjoining states (who do not even pay taxes to Oregon) have greater rights than citizens of states farther away (who do pay Oregon taxes)?

I wonder if that might be an interesting test case?
 
It turns out that in several states, non-resident voting rights (or privileges, pick your poison) are at the discretion of municipalities, at least for local elections. So if you're paying property taxes out of state and you're concerned about your representation, I'd say lobby the local taxing districts (city, county, school district, etc.) to change their residency requirements. Or write a letter to the appropriate legislators to introduce legislation to change the state law.

Now, what about the folks who live in one state and work in another? Folks who live in border towns know all about that particular drama. You pay income tax to one state and live in another.

What about the miscellaneous taxes that you pay when you're traveling out of state? Sales tax, fuel tax, room tax...the list goes on.

I can see some headaches that would require a smarter person than me to resolve - what about joint ownership? For example, before we created a trust, my parents, my sister, my wife and I jointly owned a property in another county. Since none of us reside in that county, we don't get to vote. But if the law was different, how would it work? Would we all get to vote? Or would just one of us? Some of us?

I think that it boils down to the difficulty of achieving perfection in a nominally good, but imperfect system.

Here's an interesting article: http://www.ncsl.org/default.aspx?tabid=16595
 
Hardcase, I understand your points about taxes but I was talking about the equal protection issue.

Gun owners in adjacent states have greater rights than gun owners in far away states. Oregon allows non-resident permits, but only for adjacent states. That is such an arbitrary reason as to pass all reason.

OK, it makes sense for those who live next door and work in Oregon, but it's still very very arbitrary. So the idea is that citizens of other states who have a NEED to travel to Oregon for WORK are treated differently than citizens of other states who have a NEED to travel to Oregon TO TAKE CARE OF PROPERTY THEY OWN THERE. Reasonably equal needs ... plus the property owners pay taxes. Adjacent state residents do not (and before you go there, there are no sales taxes in Oregon).

It seems like unequal protection to me.
 
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Ah, yes, I see your point. I guess the question that would be germane is what is it about the lack of Oregon (or adjacent state) residence that disqualifies an otherwise eligible individual from carrying a concealed weapon?

It seems to me that the obvious answer is "nothing", but I guess that I am not wise in the political ways.
 
Just, if you were to bring your arguments to a court in Oregon, they would tell you taht you have a right to carry...openly...or if you must be a fox and hide your weapon, you can do that on the property you own.

You are not being prevented from protecting yoruself, you are only not allowed to cover your weapon in public.
 
A little late to this argument, but....

The Court declared that the core of this right, was the right to be armed to defend self and family, in the face of immediate confrontation:

Putting all of these textual elements together, we find that they guarantee the individual right to possess and carry weapons in case of confrontation. Heller, 554 U.S. at 592.

There is no insinuation in the above that holds only to "in the home."

The problem is that the various State Defendants and the Courts are seeing only the exact holding in Heller, as opposed to the reasoning that the Court used in making its determination. That reasoning is being called obiter dicta. But is it dicta?

“When an opinion issues for the Court, it is not only the result but also those portions of the opinion necessary to that result by which we are bound.” Seminole Tribe of Fla. v. Florida, 517 U.S. 44, 67 (1996).

It's not just the immediate result of the case (the so-called "holding"), but the reasoning the Court used to get that result. There are other citations where the Court says much same thing. What it boils down to is that the lower courts are ignoring the reasoning of the Supreme Court and applying only the specific holding and regarding all else as dicta, which they then ignore.

This is exemplified at the definition of

Dicta: [Latin, A remark.] A statement, comment, or opinion. An abbreviated version of obiter dictum, "a remark by the way," which is a collateral opinion stated by a judge in the decision of a case concerning legal matters that do not directly involve the facts or affect the outcome of the case, such as a legal principle that is introduced by way of illustration, argument, analogy, or suggestion.

Dictum has no binding authority and, therefore, cannot be cited as precedent in subsequent lawsuits. Dictum is the singular form of dicta.

West's Encyclopedia of American Law, edition 2. Copyright 2008 The Gale Group, Inc. All rights reserved.

dictum n. Latin for "remark", a comment by a judge in a decision or ruling which is not required to reach the decision, but may state a related legal principle as the judge understands it. While it may be cited in legal argument, it does not have the full force of a precedent (previous court decisions or interpretations) since the comment was not part of the legal basis for judgment. The standard counter argument is: "it is only dictum (or dicta)."

Copyright © 1981-2005 by Gerald N. Hill and Kathleen T. Hill. All Right reserved.

Let's assume, for the sake of the argument, that what Justice Scalia wrote above, is in fact, dicta. Since no other intervening cases have arisen to alter that statement, then even if dicta, it is legally persuasive just because the Supreme Court said it.

The fact that the lower courts are ignoring this, means absolutely nothing. You will notice that the 7th Circuit took what the Heller Court said as fact. The 4th Circuit, 9th Circuit and the Maryland Supreme Court of Appeals have ignored this, and they will get slapped down for their efforts.
 
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