JohnKSa said:I'm not going to get side-tracked.
If you believed that the text of the rule would risk getting you sidetracked, it might have been better not to request it.
JohnKSa said:The comment about selling twice in five years is not intended to indicate that "life altering prosecution" is possible because someone simply sells two firearms in five years.According to Garland, you are less likely to be prosecuted for selling twice in five years that if than if you do so "several times over a short period", but he does not rule out a life altering prosecution over it.
It is part of a comparison in an explanation--it gives two hypothetical cases and compares them to see which of the two cases makes a person more/less likely to be found to have satisfied the repetitive sales portion of the law. It was not a statement that selling 2 guns in 5 years was going make it clear that a person was "understood to be engaged in the business", nor even that "selling several times over a short period" would. The point was the comparison. In either of the two situations stated for the sake of comparison (the more likely one or the less likely one) it would require additional evidence to prosecute.
Your guess about Garland’s intent will be less instructive that what he writes. Since both scenarios would involve additional evidence, as all fact patterns do, that is not the salient difference between selling twice in five years, or selling “several times over a short period”.
JohnKSA said:It is not helpful to scare people by taking statements from the explanation out of context and trying to make people believe (for example) that this new rule means that selling 2 guns in 5 years might put them in jeopardy. There's a lot more to it than that and leaving it out is misleading and alarmist.
There is no context in which asserting that selling two guns in five years is less likely to have you deemed a dealer means you are in no jeopardy of being deemed a dealer. “Less likely” never indicates impossibility.
JohnKSa said:No, I am not aware of that and, in fact, that is not the case.You are aware that one can be a dealer under the rule without having sold a single firearm.
Yet, at post #77 you correctly assert
JohnKSa said:It's about intent, not about the actual outcome.
What changed your mind?
JohnKSa said:Garland's quote specifically notes that " Even a single firearm transaction, or offer to engage in a transaction, when combined with other evidence, may be sufficient to require a license. "
Have you missed that this formula uses the disjunctive? That means a single firearm transaction is not required, just as I explained.
JohnKSa said:If you are trying to say that if you clearly represent yourself as being in the business of selling firearms and don't have a license that they can prosecute you before you actually start selling, that is true--but that is not anything new to this rule.
I welcome your understanding that,
zukiphile said:Properly understood that means that not even a single sale is required to be found to be an unlicensed dealer; it's the other evidence that may make you a defendant.
…is correct, but
JohnKSa said:What it means is that it takes repetitive sales AND other evidence, it doesn't mean that it takes repetitive sales OR other evidence.
…was not because one can be a dealer in the absence of repetitive sales.
You do not use the regulatory language I quoted at your request. Instead you now wonder if I’m “trying to say” something other than “or otherwise demonstrates a willingness and ability to purchase and resell additional firearms”. I bolded that language so you wouldn’t get sidetracked. That’s not that same as “clearly represent yourself as being in the business of selling firearms”. Your substituted language begs the questions raised by the BSCA and the reg, whether one is engaged in the business.
If your contention is (I am far from certain that it is) that under the prior rule one didn’t need a "principle objective of livelihood and profit” and that one could be a presumed dealer having demonstrated a willingness and ability, yet not have bought or sold any arms, I’d be interested to see the prior regulatory text that leads you to this conclusion.
I read Garland at p.3,
The BSCA therefore removed the requirement to consider income for “livelihood” when determining that a person is “engaged in the business” of dealing in firearms at wholesale or retail.
Garland understands the prior rule to have considered income for the "livelihood" and a fact pattern without transactions wouldn't generate income. If Garland has misunderstood the requirements imposed by the prior rule, I'm open to sources that indicate his error.
Note that US v. King features attempted transactions by a straw/fraudulent licensee (the nominal license holder being at least one object of the defendant's fraud) who incorporated for engaging in that business and had purchased 20 or so firearms though that business.
JohnKSa said:You know what would be really helpful?
I do.
It would be helpful to a discussion of the BSCA, EO and regs not to allow your ideas of other peoples’ unstated intent to serve as your guide to statutory construction.
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