Houston carjacking victim may not face charges for shooting attackers

The deadly force was leaving the scene, so it would not be a justifiable shooting. You're not allowed to use deadly force to protect property, in Oklahoma, anyway.

In Oklahoma you're right. In Texas you can shoot and kill to protect life and property. Anything else I see as a free pass for thieves.

Here's, Joe Horn, another even more extreme example of a man defending his neighbor's property.
 
Wreck-n-Crew I was just reading you link to the 2nd amendment. It seems pretty clear that our founding fathers saw the protection of liberty and property as inextractably linked
 
(B) to prevent the other who is fleeing immediately after committing burglary, robbery, aggravated robbery, or theft during the nighttime from escaping with the property; and

The article says it happened at 9:30 P.M. IIRC, the law in Texas defines nighttime as 30 minutes past sunset and 30 minutes before dawn. Sunset for Houston is listed at 7:31 P.M. on Tuesday. Under the law, it would seem to be justified. That being said, I am not a lawyer.

Whether or not potentially or actually taking a life over an automobile or other property is an action one would actually want to live with, well that's a whole other can of worms.
 
Posted by Eppie: ....Here's Joe Horn, another even more extreme example of a man defending his neighbor's property.
Let's stop propagating that myth.

Horn's 911 call does indicate that he was under the impression that he would be justified in shooting to defend his neighbor's property.

Under some circumstances (including the existence of a prior request from the neighbor to do so), one might well be justified.

However, Horn's attorney did not pursue that defense.

What saved Horn's hide was the Grand Jury testimony of an eyewitness (LEO) that Horn had fired in self defense.

Horn has suffered heaiviy since.

It seems pretty clear that our founding fathers saw the protection of liberty and property as inextractably linked.
Our founding fathers lived within the constructs of centuries-old laws that did not excuse the use of deadly force to defend property per se.

Posted by 9mmfan: The article says it happened at 9:30 P.M. IIRC, the law in Texas defines nighttime as 30 minutes past sunset and 30 minutes before dawn. Sunset for Houston is listed at 7:31 P.M. on Tuesday. Under the law, it would seem to be justified.
This was a robbery.
 
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(B) to prevent the other who is fleeing immediately after committing burglary, robbery, aggravated robbery, or theft during the nighttime from escaping with the property; and
The article says it happened at 9:30 P.M. IIRC, the law in Texas defines nighttime as 30 minutes past sunset and 30 minutes before dawn. Sunset for Houston is listed at 7:31 P.M. on Tuesday. Under the law, it would seem to be justified. That being said, I am not a lawyer.

Isn't carjacking a form of aggravated robbery? If so then the time of day doesn't matter. Still justified under section 3A IMO.
 
Mr. Gap, it was a robbery, and the time of day does not matter.

Whether it was justified depends upon whether the other conditions were met, and that will be decided by others on the basis of the evidence.

Unless the shooter is an unusual person, he will probably have doubts for the rest of his life.
 
But except in Texas, the use of deadly force after an armed robbery has occurred is unlawful.

No one commenting on the idea that they may have been still pointing a gun in his direction? I know the article doesn't say so, but it doesn't say otherwise either.

...the use of deadly force for the defense of person would not be justified.

Not even considering that the thieves now have all of his personal information and most likely the location and means of entry to his home where he may have family who are now exposed to risk.

I must say fellas, if this happened to me and they got my car, (BMW with garage door remote built in), papers in the glove box with my home address, etc... If those were the thoughts in my mind at that moment, that they might go after my family and I pretty much have no way to stop them in time. I'd be pulling the trigger too.

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Posted by 9mmfan: The article says it happened at 9:30 P.M. IIRC, the law in Texas defines nighttime as 30 minutes past sunset and 30 minutes before dawn. Sunset for Houston is listed at 7:31 P.M. on Tuesday. Under the law, it would seem to be justified.
Posted by Oldmarksman: This was a robbery.

What is a robbery that is perpetrated at gunpoint called?
 
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I must say fellas, if this happened to me and they got my car, (BMW with garage door remote built in), papers in the glove box with my home address, etc... If those were the thoughts in my mind at that moment, that they might go after my family and I pretty much have no way to stop them in time. I'd be pulling the trigger too.

Hear ye, hear ye. Finally somebody that thinks like I do. He's got the car key, garage door opener, must likely all the house keys, the wallet and your home address and he knows the man of the house is not there. If he's got half brain that's where he's headed next.
 
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But except in Texas, the use of deadly force after an armed robbery has occurred is unlawful.

This is not exactly true. At the time of the shooting, as described, the armed robbery was still in progress.

Even if the robbery had occurred as suggested as this quote suggests, then justification can still be made for the protection of life threatened by the robbers. The robbery may be over, but the threat being posed may not be. This would depend on the circumstances.

So just because the robbery itself might be described as being over, it does not mean the situation does not allow for lethal force as other circumstances develop as a result of the robbery.

Mr. Gap, it was a robbery, and the time of day does not matter.

Oh contraire. It this occurred at night, it certainly does matter in Texas.
TEXAS PENAL CODE ANN. § 9.42 : Texas Statutes - Section 9.42: DEADLY FORCE TO PROTECT PROPERTY

A person is justified in using deadly force against another to protect land or tangible, movable property:

(1) if he would be justified in using force against the other under Section 9.41; and

(2) when and to the degree he reasonably believes the deadly force is immediately necessary:

(A) to prevent the other's imminent commission of arson, burglary, robbery, aggravated robbery, theft during the nighttime, or criminal mischief during the nighttime; or

(B) to prevent the other who is fleeing immediately after committing burglary, robbery, aggravated robbery, or theft during the nighttime from escaping with the property; and

(3) he reasonably believes that:

(A) the land or property cannot be protected or recovered by any other means; or

(B) the use of force other than deadly force to protect or recover the land or property would expose the actor or another to a substantial risk of death or serious bodily injury.

Let's see, the robbers were armed and so is aggravated robbery. So if this occurred at night, then lethal force under such circumstances would be lawful.
 
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He's got the car key, garage door opener, must likely all the house keys, the wallet and your home address and he knows the man of the house is not there. If he's got half brain that's where he's headed next.
Had a case here in Ohio where someone jacked a car from a family. (If I recall correctly it was Columbus). He then used the address from the registration to find the home a day or two later. Keys to the home were on the key ring. He went to the home where he found the woman alone with her son and killed the woman. Thank god the kid wasn't physically harmed.
 
That may be, but I don't know of any state where you are allowed to preemptively use lethal force to stop a person from committing a potential crime at some unknown point in the future. The criminal may have your wallet, keys, garage door opener, etc., but possession of those items because they may give the criminal access to others isn't justification for lethal force.
 
I'm not from Texas but, doesn't the Texas law I put in post http://thefiringline.com/forums/showpost.php?p=5634779&postcount=16 #16 cover this? Or is that not the correct Texas law regarding justified use of deadly force. The way it reads seems pretty clear. You can use deadly force to recover property, as a result of an aggravated robbery, and the criminals carry firearms that could result in serious bodily injury or death. This would meet the section 1, 2B and 3B requirements. No?
 
The criminal may have your wallet, keys, garage door opener, etc., but possession of those items because they may give the criminal access to others isn't justification for lethal force.

I disagree. There is language about "what you can articulate in court" and "what a reasonable person" believes could happen. If I can articulate in court, meaning describe what I was thinking at the time, that my garage door opener and address are in the vehicle, and then to think a reasonable person wouldn't believe that, is a far stretch. Much further than what I've just described.

It is commonly known and accepted that you should not have your home address listed in your GPS as such. Call it "Franks House" or something. If anyone steals your GPS, boom they know where you live.

Similar concepts though vastly different applications.
 
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You guys citing all this time of day stuff as if it were important in this case must not be reading the same law I am. They are two different criteria to meet entirely. Read it again and understand what you are reading. Aggravated robbery is met, done deal, time of day means absolutely nothing.
 
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Aggravated burglary is met, done deal, time of day means absolutely nothing.

That's the way I understood it. That's way the detective on TV understood it and that is why he called it "Justifiable homicide".
 
ripnbst said:
I disagree. There is language about "what you can articulate in court" and "what a reasonable person" believes could happen. If I can articulate in court, meaning describe what I was thinking at the time, that my garage door opens e and address are in the vehicle, and then to think a reasonable person wouldn't believe that, is a far stretch. Much further than what I've just be scribed.
Double Naught Spy is correct. There is no jurisdiction (at least in the United States) in which one may use deadly force based on a belief that a crime may be committed in the future; whether the belief is "reasonable" is irrelevant.
You guys citing all this time of day stuff as if it were important in this case must not be reading the same law I am.
In Texas, the "time of day stuff" is important. The section of the statute quoted by DNS in this post is very clear that one may use deadly force to protect property only at night. If you're reading something different from this, please give us chapter and verse.
 
I think he is referring to the bit about robbery and aggravated robbery being listed in a section that seemed to say the crimes, and not loss of property, justified shooting the fleeing felon to stop him.

That seemed different from the section on shooting to stop loss of property, and did not seem to require night - unlike property defense.

I may have read it incorrectly, but that was how it seemed to read to me, too.
 
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