Misplaced blame
Referring to the Treaty of Versailles and possible causes of WWII, we are told:
"Exactly why I think he may have something. France may not have started it,,but their [sic] arrogance sure fueled the fires."
Are you seriously suggesting that France, and France alone, signed - or even dictated the terms of - the Treaty of Versaille? Get real.
It may have escaped your notice, but there were other countries involved - hence the designation "WORLD War I." Belgium was invaded, there was fighting in Italy and Britain was bombed. All three wanted reparations.
Germany's allies, Turkey and Austria-Hungary principally, had to be dealt with, along with the lesser supporters of the Triple Alliance. There were territories in the Middle East, China and the Pacific Rim to be allocated. In what way, shape, manner or form could France, and France alone, be responsible for a treaty addressing all of the above?
Did the Treaty of Versailles create many of the conditions that led to the rise of Hitler and the events leading to WWII? Quite probably, especially the reparations, loss of the Sudatenland and Danzig, and occupation of the Ruhr. Did France unilaterally impose those terms while its allies, Great Britain, Belgium, Japan and the US (to name the more obvious countries) sat idly by?
Not a chance.
Try actually READING some history before trying to discuss it......