In the United States, the decisions of foreign courts may be considered for their persuasive power, but they have no precedential authority. In pretty much every state, the legislatures have specified the circumstances under which deadly force may be used and the courts in those states have created a body of caselaw applying those statutes to specific instances.
I did not intend to use that as anything other than a statement of one moral theory. Not long after that incident German law was changed to give protection to children. The case, going by memory of the case now because it was the moral theory that interested me more, involved two children who, in a time of need, where stealing food from an orchard? (or some type of farm). The owner, upon discovering the theft, used deadly force against the thieves. His defense, successful at the time, leaned on the premise that one need not yield any special treatment to those acting criminally against you or your property.
I would not expect the argument to work in today's courts in any of the western world. German law, even back then, was changed shortly after to give protections to children - even those who were "in the wrong"