Marko Kloos
Inactive
Coinneach, you clearly don't comprehend my argument because you are stuck on torture. I posed a philosophical question dealing with the use of force on a personal and national level and why they are so different.
You're answering your own question there. It's because they are two totally different sets of circumstances.
On a personal level, there is no doubt about the identity of my attacker or his intentions. If someone comes at me with a knife or gun in a dark alley, I do not need judge or jury to establish intent or guilt, and the use of force is entirely justified because the person in question constitutes a direct and provable threat to my life.
On a "national level", it's not so clear-cut (especially when fighting a multinational enemy that does not do you the favor of wearing uniforms), unless you want to assign automatic guilt to a given nationality, skin color, or religion, and then assume that everyone fitting those charateristics has both the intent and opportunity to kill you.
Your analogy doesn't hold water. If you absolutely want to compare personal self-defense against an identified aggressor with a state's self-defense against terrorism, here's what would fit your analogy:
A group of guys breaks into your house with guns drawn. You emerge from the bedroom and cut loose with your home defense shotgun, sending the invaders fleeing. You pursue them, but they seem to have gotten away in the darkness. Then you see an individual who looks like he may have been one of the home invaders trying to start up a car nearby. You force the guy out of his car at gunpoint, and then take him to your house, where you tie him to a chair and beat him with a rubber hose to make him tell you where his buddies are.
Is that action covered under "self-defense"? Would you be legally absolved for such an action? How about morally?