FirstFreedom
Moderator
Can anyone in law enforcement / criminology answer me this one. Seems like a dumb question, but there have been a spate of Hispanic-gang-related "drive by shootings" in 2006 so far, and articles / media coverage about said drive by shoootings, of course. What does NOT appear to be clear from the stories are whether:
1. Drive by shootings means someone drove by and took shots (or A shot),
or
2. Drive by shootings means that someone was HIT with a bullet
??
Also, does anyone know in general, what portion of drive by shootings (or attempted drive by shootings, if shooting is defined as making a hit on a person), result in a someone actually being hit? I ask because I would think that gangsters firing handguns from a moving vehicle are not gonna make just a heck of a lot of hits, high capacity or not. Makes me think that the 300 and something figure of drive-bys so far YTD '05 in OKC means shots-fired-incidents, not people hit.
1. Drive by shootings means someone drove by and took shots (or A shot),
or
2. Drive by shootings means that someone was HIT with a bullet
??
Also, does anyone know in general, what portion of drive by shootings (or attempted drive by shootings, if shooting is defined as making a hit on a person), result in a someone actually being hit? I ask because I would think that gangsters firing handguns from a moving vehicle are not gonna make just a heck of a lot of hits, high capacity or not. Makes me think that the 300 and something figure of drive-bys so far YTD '05 in OKC means shots-fired-incidents, not people hit.