Heard someone talking today about waiting periods and they said there was a federal study that showed a correlation between the day a gun was purchased and that gun being used to shoot someone in a crime or self defense. I thought this sounded odd because I work with stats and I am not sure how they would measure that. Especially when the vast majority of crimes involving a firearm involve an illegal gun either stolen or pitched outside of a legal means. Anyone know if there is any validity to this claim?