I am in an argument with another gentleman on another forum. He maintains that shooting-to-wound is ok; once you are justified in using deadly force on someone, you can shoot them in the toe if you feel like. Something typical is:
Here's some other snippets:
I posted the Arizona Revised statutes defining what is deadly force, and the law that defines when one is justified in using deadly force. He responds:
I try to restate my case and how I see what the law says. It plainly states - 'deadly physical force is immediately necessary to protect himself.' If you feel that merely wounding someone is sufficient to stop them, then you shouldn't have used a deadly weapon.
Sorry for the length of this post, but I'm stuck. I don't want this guy to get in a shooting and tell the jury "Let me off because I spared his life; I was only shooting to wound."
Does anyone have any links to laws or cases where this is clarified?
Thanks in advance.
I am beyond that, I am saying that use of deadly force is a given, at that point I can shoot the assailant in the toe if I want to. I can do whatever I choose to end the threat and once its ended I must cease and desist immediately. But no where does the law say I have to intend to kill.
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Foxy, I as always appreciate your input but respectfully speaking, youre utterly incorrect. Bob and I are in complete agreement on what is required to shoot, but I defy you to find me one law that says if you shoot, your intent must be to kill. You do and I will buy you a beer.
There are all sorts of urban legends about people advising people to "make sure you kill the other guy" etc. Its all crap. You are more likely to face jailtime by excessive use of force. If you choose to attempt to wound someone ONCE the right to shoot has been satisified, thats up to you.
I call bs. Show me a law or retract.
I posted the Arizona Revised statutes defining what is deadly force, and the law that defines when one is justified in using deadly force. He responds:
My hand could be an instrument of deadly force or it could make mashed potatoes. A gun can be a deadly weapon but by no means is it always a deadly weapon. It is more often a deterrant than an actual weapon of violence. It can also be used to stop someone without killing them. By using a deadly weapon you are realizing that death COULD well be an outcome, but no where does the law state AFAIK that must be your intent. Thats the only reason I had any exception to Bobs statement at all.
All of the law you posted, I agree with completely and have said repeatedly above. I am more than versed in what must be met to use deadly force. Death however does not have to be your intent to use deadly force, it is merely a POSSIBLE outcome which you need to know going in. The point is to make sure there is no other alternative.
I reiterate, once you have satisfied the right to shoot, there is no law AFAIK that governs how or where you can shoot your target or with what intent.
The problem is you are making a jump that isnt there.
I try to restate my case and how I see what the law says. It plainly states - 'deadly physical force is immediately necessary to protect himself.' If you feel that merely wounding someone is sufficient to stop them, then you shouldn't have used a deadly weapon.
You are a combo of confused and mistaken. You are confusing when you can use deadly force with your intent AFTER use of deadly force has been shown acceptable under the law. They are two seperate events. Youre backtracking to undermine the legality of use of deadly force, after I am assuming that as a given. Thats not the issue.
I gave you a clear example. Videotaped robbery, shooter chooses to shoot armed assailant in the toe. The video proves the threat(leveled gun at him) and if you believe hes breaking the law by choosing to wound(regardless of outcome) at that point, youre just mistaken. Once he has the right to shoot, he can make his own call as to how aggressive that will. You dont erase obvious and clear threat JUST because the guy chooses to wound. I agree its not a good idea, but its not even remotely illegal.
And again use of deadly force does not mean you intend to kill, it means death is a real possibility. Your interpretation of the definition is incorrect.
Sorry for the length of this post, but I'm stuck. I don't want this guy to get in a shooting and tell the jury "Let me off because I spared his life; I was only shooting to wound."
Does anyone have any links to laws or cases where this is clarified?
Thanks in advance.