carguychris said:
....This is certainly true in a purely literal sense, but consider that it's commonplace for courts to use the totality of the circumstances to infer whether a person's conduct was intentional or not. For instance, intent to kill is generally the difference between manslaughter and murder.
Not exactly. The principal difference between voluntary manslaughter and murder is state of mind; to be murder the actor must have malice (i. e., evil or malicious intent).
It's explained
here:
The unjustifiable, inexcusable, and intentional killing of a human being without deliberation, premeditation, and malice. The unlawful killing of a human being without any deliberation, which may be involuntary, in the commission of a lawful act without due caution and circumspection.
Manslaughter is a distinct crime and is not considered a lesser degree of murder. The essential distinction between the two offenses is that malice aforethought must be present for murder, whereas it must be absent for manslaughter. Manslaughter is not as serious a crime as murder. On the other hand, it is not a justifiable or excusable killing for which little or no punishment is imposed.
At Common Law, as well as under current statutes, the offense can be either voluntary or
Involuntary Manslaughter. The main difference between the two is that voluntary manslaughter requires an intent to kill or cause serious bodily harm while involuntary manslaughter does not.....
Koda94 said:
the difficult thing about this example is the suspect is intentionally using a lethal weapon to get his point across. Given the totality of the circumstances, one can not know the suspects intentions to not use the gun.
And a reasonable person can infer intent from conduct. Carrying a rifle slung or wearing a holstered handgun (without attempting to draw attention to the presence of the weapon) could arguably be innocuous.
But here the actor was pointing his pistol at the subject, and one can infer from what and how he is doing it that his actions with the gun are for the purposes of intimidation, or to secure compliance, or to convince someone to keep his distance. The threat is that the subject will, if he doesn't comply, be shot.
The usual definition of assault, based on the Common Law is:
an intentional act by one person that creates an apprehension in another of an imminent harmful or offensive contact.
In the laws of some States this crime might be given another name. For example, in Alabama it's called "menacing." But by whatever name it is called, it is a crime in every State.
So a display of a firearm, when done for the purposes of intimidation, or to secure compliance, or to convince someone to keep his distance, or in response to a perceived threat is, in all States, an assault of some type. You are effectively putting someone in fear of an imminent harmful or offensive contact, i. e., getting shot.
Now in all States it will be a defense against a charge of assault (or any similar crime) if you establish that your assault satisfied the applicable legal standard for justification.
In most States the standard for justifying a threat of lethal force is the same as for justifying the use of lethal force in self defense. In a few, it's a somewhat lesser standard. So in all States if you threaten lethal force you will need to be able to at least show
prima facie such threat was legally justified, that is if you want to avoid a conviction for assault.
The video doesn't show any conduct on the part of the subject of the assault which appears to reasonably justify a threat of lethal force in response.