Interstate Commerce & the Feds

T

TEX

New member
I would like some information and/or thoughts on the following question.

Although I have no plans of testing this out my self,I was wondering...Since (I believe)(I heard it somewhere) (Someone told me) that most of our federal gun laws hinge on the interstate commerce angle. If that is so, then would a firearm, hi-cap mags, ammunition, home made, class III weapons, etc. be exempt from all of these federal laws if they were manufactured and sold in just one particular state and never intended for sale or use outside of the state. If so, I wonder why no one has exploited this angle. In a large state like mine, Texas, this would be feasible if it were legal. Any thoughts?
 
Don't do it. The Feds also have laws regarding manufacture. Anyway, say you made a machine gun, and sold it within the state of Texas. What's to stop the person you sold it to, taking it out of state and either misusing it, or selling it. It then becomes interstate commerce. There is no way to make it stop working (shooting) once it crosses into Oklahoma, or wherever.
Paul B.
COMPROMISE IS NOT AN OPTION!
 
I don't have the tech no-how to make one myself anyway and my honey do list is way too long to get that kind of spare time, but I was thinking more like if I purchased a gun here in Texas that was manufactured in Texas, and I never took it across state lines, could I (technically) fall under a different set of laws or be exempt from federal laws. Granted, I would never want to be the test monkey on this, I was just curious. :)
 
Yes, Tex, if the Constitution were actually being interpreted in good faith by the Courts, they couldn't touch you. But the courts have deliberately interpreted the interestate commerce clause so as to give the federal government authority over EVERYTHING. There was this big Supreme court case, years ago, where a farmer raised grain on his own land, to feed to his own animals, for his own consumption, and was prosecuted for violating some agricultural quota. The Supreme court upheld the law, arguing that IF THE FARMER HADN'T RAISED HIS OWN GRAIN, HE MIGHT HAVE BOUGHT IT IN INTERSTATE COMMERCE. According the the current legal rules, deliberately refraining from interstate commerce "affects" interstate commerce, and thus comes under federal jurisdiction.
 
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