Spats McGee
Administrator
I don't think the Constitution specifically mentions "standing," but that does not mean that the courts "pretty much just made it up." From the Legal Information Institute:It's my understanding that "standing" is not in the constitution or the bill of rights and the courts pretty much just made it up . If a law is unconstitutional doesn't everyone have standing ? The idea one needs to be harmed by such a thing first is absurd IMHO .
That aside doesn't the law it self give the standing you believe is not there . That's the whole point of these types of laws - yes/no?
Source: https://www.law.cornell.edu/wex/standingLII said:Standing in State Court
A state's statutes will determine what constitutes standing in that particular state's courts. These typically revolve around the requirement that plaintiffs have sustained or will sustain direct injury or harm and that this harm is redressable.
Standing in Federal Court
At the federal level, legal actions cannot be brought simply on the ground that an individual or group is displeased with a government action or law. Federal courts only have constitutional authority to resolve actual disputes (see Case or Controversy).
In Lujan v. Defenders of Wildlife (90-1424), 504 U.S. 555 (1992), the Supreme Court created a three-part test to determine whether a party has standing to sue:
- The plaintiff must have suffered an "injury in fact," meaning that the injury is of a legally protected interest which is (a) concrete and particularized and (b) actual or imminent
- There must be a causal connection between the injury and the conduct brought before the court
- It must be likely, rather than speculative, that a favorable decision by the court will redress the injury
On the federal level, it's rooted in part in the language of Article III of the Constitution. Specifically, Section 2. I'll underline the relevant parts:
I'm not going to go down the rabbit hole of all of the State constitutions. The federal constitution, though, limits the jurisdiction of federal courts to "cases or controversies." If there's no case or controversy, then the court does not have jurisdiction. If the court were to rule on the constitutionality of a law in the absence of an actual case or controversy, that would be an advisory opinion, and would infringe on the legislative power, which is delegated to Congress. If there is a case or controversy, then at least one party alleges some kind of injury. That injury is part of what gives that party standing to bring suit.US Constitution said:Section 2
The judicial Power shall extend to all Cases, in Law and Equity, arising under this Constitution, the Laws of the United States, and Treaties made, or which shall be made, under their Authority;—to all Cases affecting Ambassadors, other public Ministers and Consuls;—to all Cases of admiralty and maritime Jurisdiction;—to Controversies to which the United States shall be a Party;—to Controversies between two or more States;—between a State and Citizens of another State,—between Citizens of different States,—between Citizens of the same State claiming Lands under Grants of different States, and between a State, or the Citizens thereof, and foreign States, Citizens or Subjects.