I've got a question.
Actually it's got three parts.
And I may just be misinformed, since I'm not fluent in Constitutional law, but bear with me.
1-Currently there is a law prohibiting persons, who've ever been charged with domestic violence, from possessing a firearm or purchasing one.
Is this basically correct?
2-Now, I thought that if I chew gum today, and if gum-chewing is outlawed tomorrow, then I cannot be charged with the offense since it was commited prior to the new law.
Is this basically on the right track?
3-So, how come cops and other currently law-abiding citizens who may have slapped their spouse nineteen years ago, are now being punished (by losing the RKBA and often facing unemployment) under a new law enacted dozens of years after their crime?
It just doesn't make sense to me.
-Kframe
Actually it's got three parts.
And I may just be misinformed, since I'm not fluent in Constitutional law, but bear with me.
1-Currently there is a law prohibiting persons, who've ever been charged with domestic violence, from possessing a firearm or purchasing one.
Is this basically correct?
2-Now, I thought that if I chew gum today, and if gum-chewing is outlawed tomorrow, then I cannot be charged with the offense since it was commited prior to the new law.
Is this basically on the right track?
3-So, how come cops and other currently law-abiding citizens who may have slapped their spouse nineteen years ago, are now being punished (by losing the RKBA and often facing unemployment) under a new law enacted dozens of years after their crime?
It just doesn't make sense to me.
-Kframe