Let me state up front that I know for certain that the 2nd amendment recognizes (not grants, but recognizes) the right of the individual citizen to keep and bear arms. I say that at the beginning to avoid the confusion that ensued when I introduced this topic in another forum.
That being said, and only for the purposes of discussing tactics and lines of thought, let us argue this from the standpoint of the anti-freedom crowd, which has taken the position that the 2nd amendment is a right of the states and not of the people individually. If this is so, then how does the federal government claim any authority whatsoever in the regulation of firearms, or ANY arms for that matter, that might be used to defend a state or states from a central government run amok? Does that not upset the balance of power between the state governments and federal government in favor of the federal government?
Seems to me that there is a pretty good argument for removing the federal government from the equation all together. Am I completely off-base here?
That being said, and only for the purposes of discussing tactics and lines of thought, let us argue this from the standpoint of the anti-freedom crowd, which has taken the position that the 2nd amendment is a right of the states and not of the people individually. If this is so, then how does the federal government claim any authority whatsoever in the regulation of firearms, or ANY arms for that matter, that might be used to defend a state or states from a central government run amok? Does that not upset the balance of power between the state governments and federal government in favor of the federal government?
Seems to me that there is a pretty good argument for removing the federal government from the equation all together. Am I completely off-base here?