This is a snip and a link to the article. I hope I am posting this properly, if not mods please revise. This is the first I have heard of this actively going on. I know California was very unfriendly to firearms, but not to this level. What concerns me the most is the meaning and intentions behind this statement...
Where is this headed? It seems to say that even if the guns legally belong to me, and I have a full legal right to own them, that they can be seized because someone in my home gets deemed "mentally ill" by some over zealous medical personnel, and suddenly I am stripped of my legal rights? Am I reading this wrong? Overreacting? Link to full article below:
... at the ranch house in nearby Upland, where they seized the three guns from the home of a woman who’d been hospitalized for mental illness. One gun was registered to her, two to her husband. “The prohibited person can’t have access to a firearm,” regardless of who the registered owner is, says Michelle Gregory ...
Where is this headed? It seems to say that even if the guns legally belong to me, and I have a full legal right to own them, that they can be seized because someone in my home gets deemed "mentally ill" by some over zealous medical personnel, and suddenly I am stripped of my legal rights? Am I reading this wrong? Overreacting? Link to full article below: