Why is it that affairs occurring anywhere in the world are legally resolved under american law as soon as an american is in any way connected to the issue?
Example 1: more or less successful attempts to extort large sums of money by a certain attorney from diverse european entities (Swiss, Austrian and German governments and companies) in connection with WWII.
Example 2: Divorce case of tennis crack Boris Becker - AFAIK the marriage and marriage contract - which would limit Barbara's settlement - were formed under german law, but the divorce case is pending in Miami.
Example 3: Civil suits regarding the Kitzsteinhorn railroad disaster.
It would seem to me that US law only applies to events on US territory; when someone is on another states territory, he is automatically subject to that states laws - like the german "tourist" who was executed for murder in Texas(?); or adhering to driving laws (left hand side of road in Britain; no right turn on red in Europe); or gun laws (no guns in Mexico); etc.
Handling non-US cases under US law also seems unconstitutional to me, as it clearly violates the "equal protection" clause - non-US Citizens would surely be refused legal standing for such cases...
Explanations?
Example 1: more or less successful attempts to extort large sums of money by a certain attorney from diverse european entities (Swiss, Austrian and German governments and companies) in connection with WWII.
Example 2: Divorce case of tennis crack Boris Becker - AFAIK the marriage and marriage contract - which would limit Barbara's settlement - were formed under german law, but the divorce case is pending in Miami.
Example 3: Civil suits regarding the Kitzsteinhorn railroad disaster.
It would seem to me that US law only applies to events on US territory; when someone is on another states territory, he is automatically subject to that states laws - like the german "tourist" who was executed for murder in Texas(?); or adhering to driving laws (left hand side of road in Britain; no right turn on red in Europe); or gun laws (no guns in Mexico); etc.
Handling non-US cases under US law also seems unconstitutional to me, as it clearly violates the "equal protection" clause - non-US Citizens would surely be refused legal standing for such cases...
Explanations?