People have been looking at the Second Ammendment the wrong way I think.
The first sentence simply states that a well regulated militia is necessary to the security of a free society. Then the second sentence states the the people have a right to bear arms.
Well then, the first sentence merely states that there is a militia, that it is to be well regulated(though it doesn't say by whom), and that it is vital to the security of a free state(it doesn't state which one). What I gather from this then is that the first sentence of the second ammendment merely gives legal grounds for the existance of the militia, and it only uses the term well-regulated directly in reference to the milita.
Second sentence. The right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed. This is extremely clear. The right of the people. It doesn't mention any exceptions, nor any loopholes. It says this right shall not be infringed, period. Doesn't say the government is excepted, it says plain as day, shall not be infringed.
Why are these two in the same ammendment? Because it is stating that for the purpose of the militia being armed and ready, the right of the people(not limited to the militia) to bear arms shall not be infringed.
If they had meant only the army and the cops, or only males in the right age group they would have said, "The right of the militia to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed".
What we need to do though, is come up with an unbiased and totally historically accurate definition of the word "arms" because any of us who have an ounce of sanity should know full well that the right of joe citizen does not include privately owned nuclear weapons. Any historians here capable of coming up with a concise definition of arms?
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The Alcove
I twist the facts until they tell the truth. -Some intellectual sadist
The Bill of Rights is a document of brilliance, a document of wisdom, and it is the ultimate law, spoken or not, for the very concept of a society that holds liberty above the desire for ever greater power. -Me
The first sentence simply states that a well regulated militia is necessary to the security of a free society. Then the second sentence states the the people have a right to bear arms.
Well then, the first sentence merely states that there is a militia, that it is to be well regulated(though it doesn't say by whom), and that it is vital to the security of a free state(it doesn't state which one). What I gather from this then is that the first sentence of the second ammendment merely gives legal grounds for the existance of the militia, and it only uses the term well-regulated directly in reference to the milita.
Second sentence. The right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed. This is extremely clear. The right of the people. It doesn't mention any exceptions, nor any loopholes. It says this right shall not be infringed, period. Doesn't say the government is excepted, it says plain as day, shall not be infringed.
Why are these two in the same ammendment? Because it is stating that for the purpose of the militia being armed and ready, the right of the people(not limited to the militia) to bear arms shall not be infringed.
If they had meant only the army and the cops, or only males in the right age group they would have said, "The right of the militia to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed".
What we need to do though, is come up with an unbiased and totally historically accurate definition of the word "arms" because any of us who have an ounce of sanity should know full well that the right of joe citizen does not include privately owned nuclear weapons. Any historians here capable of coming up with a concise definition of arms?
------------------
The Alcove
I twist the facts until they tell the truth. -Some intellectual sadist
The Bill of Rights is a document of brilliance, a document of wisdom, and it is the ultimate law, spoken or not, for the very concept of a society that holds liberty above the desire for ever greater power. -Me